CPCT MP DBMS Complete MCQ Question Bank (400)

📘 DBMS Fundamentals, Architecture, ER Model & Relational Model

Q1. In the relational model, cardinality refers to:
(A) Number of tuples
(B) Number of attributes
(C) Number of tables
(D) Number of constraints
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Cardinality means number of rows (tuples) in a relation.

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Q2. Degree of a relation refers to:
(A) Number of tuples
(B) Number of attributes
(C) Number of constraints
(D) Number of keys
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Degree means the number of attributes (columns).

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Q3. Relational calculus is a:
(A) Procedural language
(B) Non-procedural language
(C) Data definition language
(D) High-level language
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Relational calculus specifies what to retrieve, not how.

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Q4. Relational algebra is a:
(A) Procedural query language
(B) Non-procedural language
(C) Data dictionary
(D) Data model
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Relational algebra specifies step-by-step procedures.

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Q5. The view of total database content is:
(A) Conceptual view
(B) Internal view
(C) External view
(D) Physical view
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Conceptual schema describes the complete database.

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Q6. Database architecture can be viewed as:
(A) Two levels
(B) Three levels
(C) Four levels
(D) One level
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: External, Conceptual and Internal levels.

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Q7. The external level is also called:
(A) Physical level
(B) Logical level
(C) View level
(D) Internal level
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: External level provides user-specific views.

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Q8. DML is used for:
(A) Defining schema
(B) Manipulating data
(C) Creating users
(D) Recovery
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: DML performs INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, SELECT.

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Q9. DDL stands for:
(A) Dynamic Data Language
(B) Detailed Data Language
(C) Data Definition Language
(D) Data Derivation Language
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: DDL defines database structures.

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Q10. Which SQL command modifies table structure?
(A) UPDATE
(B) ALTER
(C) SELECT
(D) INSERT
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: ALTER changes schema definition.

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Q11. ODBC stands for:
(A) Object Database Connectivity
(B) Oracle Database Connectivity
(C) Open Database Connectivity
(D) Oral Database Connectivity
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: ODBC is a standard API for database access.

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Q12. A relation in DBMS is:
(A) Tuple
(B) Table
(C) Attribute
(D) Key
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Relation means table.

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Q13. A row in a relation is called:
(A) Attribute
(B) Domain
(C) Tuple
(D) Degree
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Tuple means row.

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Q14. A column in a relation is called:
(A) Domain
(B) Attribute
(C) Degree
(D) Cardinality
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Attribute means column.

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Q15. The set of permissible values of an attribute is called:
(A) Tuple
(B) Domain
(C) Schema
(D) Relation
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Domain defines valid values.

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Q16. The database schema is written using:
(A) DML
(B) HLL
(C) DDL
(D) DCL
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: DDL defines database structure.

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Q17. Data independence means:
(A) Data depends on programs
(B) Programs are independent of data changes
(C) Data duplication
(D) Data redundancy
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Program changes are minimized despite schema changes.

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Q18. Which is NOT an advantage of DBMS?
(A) Data redundancy reduction
(B) Data inconsistency
(C) Data sharing
(D) Security
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: DBMS reduces inconsistency.

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Q19. The language embedded inside application programs is:
(A) DDL
(B) DML
(C) DCL
(D) VDL
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: DML commands are embedded in host languages.

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Q20. Which key uniquely identifies tuples?
(A) Foreign key
(B) Primary key
(C) Secondary key
(D) Composite key
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Primary key uniquely identifies records.

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Q21. Foreign key is used to:
(A) Sort records
(B) Create relationships
(C) Delete rows
(D) Normalize tables
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Foreign key links tables.

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Q22. Entity integrity requires:
(A) Foreign key cannot be NULL
(B) Primary key cannot be NULL
(C) Alternate key cannot be NULL
(D) Composite key cannot be NULL
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Primary key must contain unique non-NULL values.

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Q23. Referential integrity ensures:
(A) Duplicate rows
(B) Invalid foreign keys
(C) FK matches PK value
(D) Data redundancy
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Foreign key values must exist in parent table.

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Q24. Which model uses tree structure?
(A) Network model
(B) Relational model
(C) Hierarchical model
(D) Object model
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Hierarchical model organizes data as parent-child tree.

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Q25. Which model supports many-to-many relationships naturally?
(A) Hierarchical
(B) Network
(C) Relational
(D) Sequential
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Network model supports complex many-to-many relations.

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Q26. In ER diagram, entities are represented by:
(A) Ellipse
(B) Rectangle
(C) Diamond
(D) Triangle
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Rectangle represents entity.

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Q27. Attributes in ER model are represented by:
(A) Rectangle
(B) Diamond
(C) Ellipse
(D) Triangle
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Ellipse represents attributes.

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Q28. Relationship in ER diagram is represented by:
(A) Triangle
(B) Diamond
(C) Rectangle
(D) Ellipse
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Diamond represents relationship.

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Q29. Weak entity is represented by:
(A) Single rectangle
(B) Double rectangle
(C) Double ellipse
(D) Triangle
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Weak entity uses double rectangle.

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Q30. Derived attribute is represented by:
(A) Double ellipse
(B) Dashed ellipse
(C) Triangle
(D) Diamond
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Dashed ellipse denotes derived attribute.

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Q31. Total participation is represented by:
(A) Single line
(B) Double line
(C) Triangle
(D) Arrow
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Double line shows total participation.

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Q32. Aggregation in ER model means:
(A) Splitting entities
(B) Treating relationship as entity
(C) Combining attributes
(D) Removing entities
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Aggregation abstracts relationships.

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Q33. Generalization is represented using:
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Ellipse
(D) Diamond
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Triangle denotes generalization.

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Q34. Which key can contain NULL values?
(A) Primary key
(B) Candidate key
(C) Foreign key
(D) Super key
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Foreign keys may contain NULL.

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Q35. A candidate key selected for unique identification becomes:
(A) Foreign key
(B) Primary key
(C) Composite key
(D) Secondary key
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: One candidate key is chosen as primary key.

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Q36. A super key is:
(A) Minimal unique key
(B) Any set identifying tuples uniquely
(C) Foreign key
(D) Derived key
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Super key uniquely identifies tuples.

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Q37. A key made of multiple attributes is:
(A) Composite key
(B) Foreign key
(C) Secondary key
(D) Artificial key
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Composite key uses multiple columns.

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Q38. A relation with no duplicate tuples follows:
(A) Relational integrity
(B) Relational property
(C) Tuple uniqueness
(D) Referential integrity
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Duplicate rows are not allowed.

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Q39. Ordering of rows in a relation is:
(A) Important
(B) Fixed
(C) Irrelevant
(D) Sorted automatically
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Rows have no specific order.

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Q40. Which command removes a table permanently?
(A) DELETE
(B) ERASE
(C) DROP
(D) REMOVE
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: DROP deletes structure and data.

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Q41. Which command removes all rows but keeps table structure?
(A) DROP
(B) TRUNCATE
(C) DELETE DATABASE
(D) REMOVE
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: TRUNCATE preserves structure.

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Q42. Which clause removes duplicate rows?
(A) UNIQUE
(B) DISTINCT
(C) REMOVE
(D) FILTER
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: DISTINCT removes duplicate results.

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Q43. Which clause sorts output?
(A) GROUP BY
(B) HAVING
(C) ORDER BY
(D) SORT
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: ORDER BY sorts records.

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Q44. Which clause groups rows?
(A) ORDER BY
(B) GROUP BY
(C) HAVING
(D) DISTINCT
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: GROUP BY forms groups.

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Q45. HAVING clause is used to:
(A) Filter groups
(B) Sort rows
(C) Join tables
(D) Create view
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: HAVING filters grouped results.

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Q46. WHERE clause filters:
(A) Groups
(B) Columns
(C) Rows
(D) Views
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: WHERE filters rows before grouping.

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Q47. SQL command used to save transaction permanently:
(A) ROLLBACK
(B) COMMIT
(C) SAVEPOINT
(D) CHECKPOINT
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: COMMIT saves changes.

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Q48. Which command cancels transaction changes?
(A) COMMIT
(B) SAVEPOINT
(C) ROLLBACK
(D) CHECK
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: ROLLBACK reverses changes.

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Q49. SAVEPOINT is used to:
(A) Delete table
(B) Create backup point
(C) Create key
(D) Create schema
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: SAVEPOINT creates partial rollback points.

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Q50. COUNT() function returns:
(A) Number of rows
(B) Average
(C) Maximum value
(D) Sum
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: COUNT counts rows or values.

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Q51. AVG() function calculates:
(A) Sum
(B) Maximum
(C) Average
(D) Count
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: AVG returns arithmetic mean.

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Q52. MAX() returns:
(A) Smallest value
(B) Largest value
(C) Total
(D) Average
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: MAX gives highest value.

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Q53. MIN() function returns:
(A) Highest value
(B) Lowest value
(C) Total
(D) Average
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: MIN gives smallest value.

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Q54. SUM() function calculates:
(A) Product
(B) Total
(C) Average
(D) Maximum
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: SUM calculates total.

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Q55. Which JOIN returns matching rows only?
(A) FULL JOIN
(B) LEFT JOIN
(C) INNER JOIN
(D) CROSS JOIN
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: INNER JOIN returns matching tuples.

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Q56. Which JOIN returns all rows from left table?
(A) LEFT OUTER JOIN
(B) INNER JOIN
(C) SELF JOIN
(D) CROSS JOIN
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: LEFT JOIN keeps all left-table rows.

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Q57. Which JOIN returns all rows from both tables?
(A) INNER JOIN
(B) LEFT JOIN
(C) RIGHT JOIN
(D) FULL OUTER JOIN
✔ Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: FULL JOIN returns all records.

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Q58. A table joined with itself is:
(A) Outer join
(B) Self join
(C) Theta join
(D) Cross join
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Self join joins table with itself.

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Q59. CROSS JOIN produces:
(A) Union
(B) Cartesian product
(C) Intersection
(D) Difference
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: CROSS JOIN creates Cartesian product.

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Q60. NATURAL JOIN automatically joins based on:
(A) Primary key only
(B) Common attribute names
(C) Foreign key only
(D) Indexes
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: NATURAL JOIN matches common columns.

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Q61. Selection operation works on:
(A) Rows
(B) Columns
(C) Tables
(D) Keys
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Selection filters rows.

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Q62. Projection operation works on:
(A) Rows
(B) Columns
(C) Tuples
(D) Constraints
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Projection selects columns.

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Q63. Which relational algebra operator is unary?
(A) Union
(B) Join
(C) Selection
(D) Cartesian product
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Selection operates on one relation.

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Q64. Which operator requires union compatibility?
(A) Join
(B) Union
(C) Selection
(D) Projection
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Union requires same attributes and domains.

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Q65. Which is not a primitive relational algebra operator?
(A) Selection
(B) Projection
(C) Join
(D) Union
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Join is derived from selection + Cartesian product.

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Q66. Division operator is useful for:
(A) Arithmetic division
(B) Queries involving ALL values
(C) Sorting rows
(D) Removing duplicates
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Division handles “for all” queries.

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Q67. Which SQL operator checks membership in a list?
(A) LIKE
(B) BETWEEN
(C) IN
(D) EXISTS
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: IN compares values with a list.

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Q68. EXISTS operator checks:
(A) Duplicate rows
(B) Empty subquery
(C) Table structure
(D) Constraints
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: EXISTS checks subquery result existence.

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Q69. LIKE operator is used for:
(A) Arithmetic
(B) Pattern matching
(C) Joining
(D) Grouping
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: LIKE matches patterns.

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Q70. SQL wildcard for single character is:
(A) %
(B) _
(C) *
(D) #
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Underscore matches one character.

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Q71. SQL wildcard for multiple characters is:
(A) %
(B) _
(C) ?
(D) #
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Percent matches multiple characters.

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Q72. NULL means:
(A) Zero
(B) Blank space
(C) Unknown value
(D) Negative value
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: NULL represents missing/unknown value.

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Q73. Which comparison is correct for NULL?
(A) = NULL
(B) <> NULL
(C) IS NULL
(D) != NULL
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: NULL is tested using IS NULL.

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Q74. View is:
(A) Physical table
(B) Virtual table
(C) Temporary database
(D) Schema
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: View stores query definition.

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Q75. Main advantage of views:
(A) Security
(B) Redundancy
(C) Duplication
(D) Complexity
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Views restrict data access.

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Q76. Which SQL constraint prevents NULL values?
(A) UNIQUE
(B) CHECK
(C) NOT NULL
(D) DEFAULT
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: NOT NULL disallows empty values.

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Q77. UNIQUE constraint ensures:
(A) No duplicate values
(B) No NULL values
(C) Foreign key relation
(D) Grouping
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: UNIQUE prevents duplicates.

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Q78. CHECK constraint is used for:
(A) Restricting values
(B) Joining tables
(C) Sorting rows
(D) Creating views
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: CHECK validates conditions.

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Q79. DEFAULT constraint provides:
(A) Automatic value
(B) Key value
(C) Foreign value
(D) Duplicate value
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: DEFAULT inserts predefined values.

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Q80. Which key references another table?
(A) Candidate key
(B) Composite key
(C) Foreign key
(D) Super key
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Foreign key refers to parent table.

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Q81. A transaction must satisfy:
(A) ACID properties
(B) SQL properties
(C) File properties
(D) RAID properties
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Transactions follow ACID.

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Q82. Atomicity means:
(A) All-or-none execution
(B) Data sharing
(C) Parallel execution
(D) Data compression
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Transaction fully completes or rolls back.

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Q83. Durability means:
(A) Temporary storage
(B) Permanent changes after commit
(C) Parallel processing
(D) Data redundancy
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Committed changes survive failures.

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Q84. Isolation means:
(A) Transactions execute independently
(B) Transactions share memory
(C) Transactions duplicate data
(D) Transactions compress data
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Concurrent transactions remain isolated.

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Q85. Consistency means:
(A) Database remains valid
(B) Database duplication
(C) Parallel execution
(D) Data loss
✔ Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Transactions preserve constraints.

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Q86. Which lock allows reading only?
(A) Exclusive lock
(B) Shared lock
(C) Binary lock
(D) Intent lock
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Shared lock permits read operations.

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Q87. Exclusive lock allows:
(A) Read only
(B) Write only
(C) Read and write
(D) Delete only
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Exclusive lock allows updates.

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Q88. Deadlock occurs when:
(A) One transaction waits forever
(B) Two transactions wait for each other
(C) Database crashes
(D) Data duplicates
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Circular waiting causes deadlock.

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Q89. Wait-for graph is used for:
(A) Query optimization
(B) Deadlock detection
(C) Recovery
(D) Normalization
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Cycles indicate deadlock.

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Q90. Checkpoints are used in:
(A) Security
(B) Recovery
(C) Sorting
(D) Scheduling
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Checkpoints speed crash recovery.

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Q91. Shadow paging is a:
(A) Query method
(B) Recovery technique
(C) Join method
(D) Locking protocol
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Shadow paging supports recovery.

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Q92. RAID stands for:
(A) Random Array of Independent Disks
(B) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
(C) Rapid Array of Indexed Disks
(D) Relational Array of Independent Data
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: RAID improves reliability and performance.

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Q93. RAID 1 uses:
(A) Striping
(B) Mirroring
(C) Parity
(D) Hashing
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: RAID 1 duplicates data.

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Q94. RAID 5 uses:
(A) Mirroring only
(B) Distributed parity
(C) Sequential access
(D) Tape storage
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: RAID 5 distributes parity blocks.

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Q95. B+ Tree is mainly used for:
(A) Encryption
(B) Indexing
(C) Compression
(D) Recovery
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: B+ Trees provide efficient indexing.

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Q96. Hashing technique provides:
(A) Sequential access
(B) Random direct access
(C) Ordered storage
(D) Compression
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Hashing enables fast direct access.

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Q97. Which normal form removes partial dependency?
(A) 1NF
(B) 2NF
(C) 3NF
(D) BCNF
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: 2NF removes partial dependency.

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Q98. Which normal form removes transitive dependency?
(A) 2NF
(B) 3NF
(C) BCNF
(D) 4NF
✔ Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: 3NF removes transitive dependency.

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Q99. Which normal form removes multivalued dependency?
(A) 2NF
(B) 3NF
(C) BCNF
(D) 4NF
✔ Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: 4NF removes MVD.

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Q100. BCNF is stronger than:
(A) 1NF
(B) 2NF
(C) 3NF
(D) 4NF
✔ Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: BCNF is stricter than 3NF.
PART 2 — ADVANCED DBMS, SQL, CONCURRENCY & RECOVERY (MCQ 101–200)
Q101. Which SQL command is used to remove a table completely?
A. DELETE
B. REMOVE
C. DROP
D. ERASE
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: DROP removes the table structure and data permanently.
Q102. Which clause is used to filter grouped records?
A. WHERE
B. GROUP BY
C. HAVING
D. ORDER BY
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: HAVING filters groups after GROUP BY.
Q103. Which join returns all matching and non-matching rows from both tables?
A. Inner Join
B. Left Join
C. Right Join
D. Full Outer Join
✔ Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Full outer join includes all records from both tables.
Q104. Which SQL function counts rows?
A. SUM()
B. AVG()
C. COUNT()
D. TOTAL()
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: COUNT() returns number of rows.
Q105. Which key uniquely identifies a tuple?
A. Foreign Key
B. Candidate Key
C. Super Key
D. Alternate Key
✔ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Candidate key uniquely identifies tuples minimally.
Q106. Which SQL operator checks pattern matching?
A. BETWEEN
B. IN
C. LIKE
D. EXISTS
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: LIKE uses % and _ wildcards.
Q107. Which command is used to save transaction permanently?
A. SAVE
B. COMMIT
C. CHECKPOINT
D. ROLLBACK
✔ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: COMMIT permanently stores changes.
Q108. Which command cancels transaction changes?
A. DELETE
B. ERASE
C. ROLLBACK
D. UNDO
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: ROLLBACK restores previous consistent state.
Q109. Which join displays only matching tuples?
A. Full Join
B. Outer Join
C. Inner Join
D. Cross Join
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Inner join returns matching rows only.
Q110. SQL stands for:
A. Structured Query Language
B. Simple Query Language
C. Sequential Query Language
D. System Query Language
✔ Correct Answer: A
Explanation: SQL is the standard relational database language.
Q111. Which constraint prevents duplicate values?
A. CHECK
B. UNIQUE
C. DEFAULT
D. INDEX
✔ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: UNIQUE allows only distinct values.
Q112. Which operator combines tuples from two relations?
A. Projection
B. Selection
C. Union
D. Rename
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: UNION merges compatible tuples.
Q113. Deadlock occurs when:
A. One transaction waits forever
B. Transactions execute serially
C. Database crashes
D. Backup fails
✔ Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Deadlock happens due to cyclic waiting.
Q114. Which normal form removes transitive dependency?
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. BCNF
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: 3NF removes transitive dependencies.
Q115. Which lock allows read only?
A. Exclusive lock
B. Shared lock
C. Binary lock
D. Update lock
✔ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Shared lock allows concurrent reading.
Q116. Which RAID level mirrors disks?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
✔ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: RAID 1 uses mirroring.
Q117. Which operation selects specific columns?
A. Projection
B. Selection
C. Join
D. Union
✔ Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Projection chooses attributes.
Q118. Which operation selects rows?
A. Projection
B. Selection
C. Join
D. Rename
✔ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Selection filters tuples.
Q119. Which key references another table?
A. Primary Key
B. Candidate Key
C. Foreign Key
D. Super Key
✔ Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Foreign key maintains relationships.
Q120. BCNF is stronger than:
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. All of these
✔ Correct Answer: D
Explanation: BCNF is stricter than all previous normal forms.
Q121. Which SQL clause groups rows?
A. ORDER BY
B. GROUP BY
C. HAVING
D. SORT BY
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q122. Which command changes existing table structure?
A. UPDATE
B. ALTER
C. MODIFY
D. CHANGE
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q123. Which SQL statement removes all rows but keeps structure?
A. DELETE
B. DROP
C. TRUNCATE
D. REMOVE
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q124. Which indexing method uses hashing?
A. B-Tree
B. Sequential
C. Hash Index
D. Clustered
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q125. Which join gives Cartesian product?
A. Natural Join
B. Cross Join
C. Equi Join
D. Theta Join
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q126. Which language is used for authorization control?
A. DDL
B. DML
C. DCL
D. TCL
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q127. GRANT and REVOKE belong to:
A. DML
B. DCL
C. DDL
D. TCL
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q128. Which SQL function returns highest value?
A. MAX()
B. TOP()
C. HIGH()
D. LARGE()
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q129. Which dependency causes redundancy?
A. Functional dependency
B. Multivalued dependency
C. Join dependency
D. All of these
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q130. Which schedule allows cascading rollback?
A. Recoverable
B. Cascadeless
C. Strict
D. Serializable
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q131. Which transaction property ensures permanence?
A. Isolation
B. Atomicity
C. Durability
D. Consistency
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q132. Which file organization is best for sequential access?
A. Hash
B. Heap
C. Sequential
D. Direct
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q133. Which key is chosen among candidate keys?
A. Alternate Key
B. Foreign Key
C. Primary Key
D. Composite Key
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q134. Which join removes duplicate common columns?
A. Theta Join
B. Natural Join
C. Cross Join
D. Equi Join
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q135. Which SQL operator checks range?
A. LIKE
B. BETWEEN
C. IN
D. EXISTS
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q136. Which symbol represents projection?
A. σ
B. π
C. ⋈
D. ρ
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q137. Which symbol represents selection?
A. σ
B. π
C. ∪
D. −
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q138. Which protocol prevents cascading rollback?
A. Strict 2PL
B. Validation
C. Timestamp ordering
D. Tree protocol
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q139. Which command creates save point?
A. SAVEPOINT
B. COMMIT
C. CHECK
D. STORE
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q140. Which join condition uses equality?
A. Theta Join
B. Equi Join
C. Outer Join
D. Cross Join
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q141. Which normal form removes multivalued dependency?
A. 2NF
B. 3NF
C. 4NF
D. 5NF
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q142. Which SQL clause sorts output?
A. GROUP BY
B. ORDER BY
C. HAVING
D. SORT
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q143. Which operation combines relations vertically?
A. Join
B. Union
C. Projection
D. Selection
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q144. Which key can contain NULL values?
A. Primary Key
B. Foreign Key
C. Candidate Key
D. Super Key
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q145. Which transaction state comes before committed?
A. Active
B. Failed
C. Partially committed
D. Aborted
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q146. Which architecture level hides physical storage?
A. External
B. Conceptual
C. Internal
D. Physical
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q147. Which database model uses pointers?
A. Relational
B. Hierarchical
C. Network
D. Object
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q148. Which dependency exists when non-key depends on non-key?
A. Partial
B. Functional
C. Transitive
D. Multivalued
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q149. Which operation is unary?
A. Union
B. Difference
C. Projection
D. Join
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q150. Which concurrency issue reads uncommitted data?
A. Lost update
B. Dirty read
C. Phantom read
D. Starvation
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q151. View is a:
A. Virtual table
B. Physical table
C. Temporary file
D. Data dictionary
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q152. Which join includes unmatched rows from left table?
A. Right Join
B. Inner Join
C. Left Outer Join
D. Full Join
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q153. Which command removes specific rows?
A. DELETE
B. DROP
C. TRUNCATE
D. CLEAR
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q154. Which normal form removes repeating groups?
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. BCNF
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q155. Which operation renames relation?
A. Rename
B. Select
C. Divide
D. Project
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q156. Which SQL sublanguage controls transactions?
A. TCL
B. DML
C. DCL
D. DDL
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q157. COMMIT and ROLLBACK belong to:
A. DCL
B. DDL
C. TCL
D. DML
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q158. Which join operation is derived?
A. Projection
B. Selection
C. Join
D. Union
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q159. Which storage gives fastest access?
A. Tape
B. Disk
C. Cache
D. Optical
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q160. Which dependency is represented by X → Y?
A. Multivalued
B. Functional
C. Join
D. Trivial
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q161. Phantom problem occurs in:
A. Concurrent execution
B. Backup
C. Recovery
D. Normalization
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q162. Which command changes data values?
A. MODIFY
B. ALTER
C. UPDATE
D. CHANGE
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q163. Which SQL keyword removes duplicates?
A. UNIQUE
B. DISTINCT
C. DIFFERENT
D. FILTER
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q164. Which operation returns tuples satisfying condition?
A. Projection
B. Selection
C. Join
D. Product
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q165. Which SQL command creates a database object?
A. BUILD
B. GENERATE
C. CREATE
D. MAKE
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q166. Which protocol uses timestamps?
A. Tree protocol
B. Time ordering protocol
C. Validation protocol
D. Binary protocol
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q167. Which normal form removes join dependency?
A. 3NF
B. BCNF
C. 4NF
D. 5NF
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q168. Which SQL function returns average?
A. AVG()
B. MEAN()
C. MID()
D. TOTAL()
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q169. Which join combines all tuples?
A. Cross Join
B. Inner Join
C. Natural Join
D. Theta Join
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q170. Which property ensures all-or-none execution?
A. Consistency
B. Isolation
C. Durability
D. Atomicity
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q171. Which model stores objects with attributes and methods?
A. Hierarchical
B. Network
C. Relational
D. Object-oriented
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q172. Which operation is binary?
A. Projection
B. Selection
C. Join
D. Rename
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q173. Which SQL clause restricts rows before grouping?
A. WHERE
B. HAVING
C. GROUP BY
D. ORDER BY
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q174. Which relation property avoids duplicate tuples?
A. Integrity
B. Uniqueness
C. Atomicity
D. Closure
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q175. Which recovery method uses logs?
A. Immediate update
B. Shadow paging
C. Replication
D. Mirroring
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q176. Which operation is represented by × ?
A. Join
B. Product
C. Union
D. Difference
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q177. Which SQL command deletes database?
A. DELETE DATABASE
B. REMOVE DATABASE
C. DROP DATABASE
D. CLEAR DATABASE
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q178. Which join returns unmatched rows also?
A. Outer Join
B. Natural Join
C. Theta Join
D. Equi Join
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q179. Which file stores metadata?
A. Data file
B. Log file
C. Data dictionary
D. Backup file
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q180. Which protocol checks transaction validity before commit?
A. Timestamp
B. Validation protocol
C. Lock protocol
D. Tree protocol
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q181. Which dependency is always satisfied?
A. Trivial dependency
B. Functional dependency
C. MVD
D. Join dependency
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q182. Which SQL statement modifies schema?
A. ALTER
B. UPDATE
C. INSERT
D. DELETE
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q183. Which DBMS component manages storage?
A. Query processor
B. Storage manager
C. Transaction manager
D. Scheduler
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q184. Which operation returns common tuples?
A. Union
B. Difference
C. Intersection
D. Join
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q185. Which transaction state follows failure?
A. Active
B. Aborted
C. Committed
D. Partial
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q186. Which schema describes physical storage?
A. External
B. Conceptual
C. Internal
D. Logical
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q187. Which SQL statement retrieves data?
A. GET
B. FETCH
C. SELECT
D. OPEN
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q188. Which concurrency problem updates same item simultaneously?
A. Dirty read
B. Lost update
C. Phantom
D. Deadlock
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q189. Which join condition uses comparison operators?
A. Theta Join
B. Natural Join
C. Cross Join
D. Outer Join
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q190. Which dependency causes 4NF violation?
A. Functional dependency
B. Join dependency
C. Multivalued dependency
D. Trivial dependency
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q191. Which operator changes tuple order?
A. ORDER BY
B. GROUP BY
C. HAVING
D. DISTINCT
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q192. Which DBMS model supports many-to-many relation naturally?
A. Hierarchical
B. Network
C. Relational
D. Sequential
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q193. Which transaction property maintains validity?
A. Atomicity
B. Durability
C. Consistency
D. Isolation
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q194. Which key is minimal super key?
A. Candidate Key
B. Foreign Key
C. Composite Key
D. Secondary Key
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q195. Which SQL function gives smallest value?
A. MIN()
B. LOW()
C. LEAST()
D. SMALL()
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q196. Which command permanently saves a savepoint?
A. STORE
B. COMMIT
C. SAVE
D. CHECKPOINT
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q197. Which indexing structure is balanced?
A. Hash
B. Heap
C. B+ Tree
D. Sequential
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q198. Which lock prevents both reading and writing by others?
A. Shared lock
B. Exclusive lock
C. Binary lock
D. Intent lock
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q199. Which database language retrieves data?
A. DCL
B. DML
C. DDL
D. VDL
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q200. Which SQL clause removes duplicate rows?
A. UNIQUE
B. DISTINCT
C. FILTER
D. ONLY
✔ Correct Answer: B
PART 3 — DBMS & MIS MCQs (201–300)
Q201. Relational calculus is a
A. Procedural language
B. Non-Procedural language
C. Data definition language
D. High level language
✔ Correct Answer: B. Non-Procedural language
Explanation: Relational calculus specifies what to retrieve, not how to retrieve it.
Q202. The view of total database content is
A. Conceptual view
B. Internal view
C. External view
D. Physical view
✔ Correct Answer: A. Conceptual view
Explanation: Conceptual view represents the complete logical structure of the database.
Q203. DML is provided for
A. Description of logical structure
B. Addition of new structure
C. Manipulation & processing of database
D. Definition of physical structure
✔ Correct Answer: C. Manipulation & processing of database
Explanation: DML commands are used to insert, update, delete, and retrieve data.
Q204. ODBC stands for
A. Object Database Connectivity
B. Oral Database Connectivity
C. Oracle Database Connectivity
D. Open Database Connectivity
✔ Correct Answer: D. Open Database Connectivity
Q205. Architecture of database can be viewed as
A. Two levels
B. Four levels
C. Three levels
D. One level
✔ Correct Answer: C. Three levels
Explanation: External, Conceptual, and Internal levels.
Q206. Database schema is written in
A. HLL
B. DML
C. DDL
D. DCL
✔ Correct Answer: C. DDL
Q207. External level is also called
A. Physical level
B. Logical level
C. Conceptual level
D. View level
✔ Correct Answer: D. View level
Q208. Hierarchical model organizes records as
A. Graph
B. List
C. Links
D. Tree
✔ Correct Answer: D. Tree
Q209. Language used in application programs to request data from DBMS is
A. DML
B. DDL
C. VDL
D. SDL
✔ Correct Answer: A. DML
Q210. DBMS language embedded in application programs is
A. DDL
B. DML
C. DBA
D. Query language
✔ Correct Answer: B. DML
Q211. Which statement is false?
A. Data dictionary maintained by DBA
B. Data elements modified by changing dictionary
C. Data dictionary stores metadata
D. Data dictionary used by DBA
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q212. Advantage of DBMS is
A. Data dependency
B. Increased redundancy
C. Integrated & shared data
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q213. Query language is designed to
A. Support English-like commands
B. Help develop applications
C. Specify structure
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q214. Key representing relationship between tables
A. Primary key
B. Secondary key
C. Foreign key
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q215. Full form of DDL
A. Dynamic Data Language
B. Detailed Data Language
C. Data Definition Language
D. Data Derivation Language
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q216. Database level closest to users
A. External
B. Internal
C. Physical
D. Conceptual
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q217. Hierarchical model is also called
A. Tree structure
B. Plex structure
C. Normalize structure
D. Table structure
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q218. Systems monitoring elementary activities are
A. Management-level systems
B. Operational-level systems
C. Knowledge-level systems
D. Strategic-level systems
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q219. Projections and responses to queries are features of
A. DSS
B. MIS
C. ESS
D. TPS
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q220. Summary transaction data and periodic reports are characteristic of
A. DSS
B. MIS
C. ESS
D. TPS
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q221. DSS usually helps managers make
A. Routine decisions
B. Rapidly changing decisions
C. Daily transaction reports
D. Payroll entries
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q222. Identifying customers using trends and demographics is an example of
A. Operational system
B. Knowledge-level system
C. TPS
D. Batch system
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q223. Preparing short-term budgets belongs to
A. Operational level
B. Management level
C. Knowledge level
D. Strategic level
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q224. Tracking employee training belongs to
A. Operational level
B. Strategic level
C. Knowledge level
D. Executive level
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q225. Supply chain means
A. Production only
B. Distribution only
C. Procurement to delivery network
D. Accounting chain
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q226. Enterprise systems support
A. HR
B. Finance
C. Manufacturing
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q227. Customer names and order numbers represent
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Data
D. Procedure
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q228. Communication and abstract reasoning are
A. Routine skills
B. Non-routine cognitive skills
C. Manual skills
D. Technical faults
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q229. Good information must be
A. Relevant
B. Timely
C. Cost effective
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q230. Human order taker can be bypassed using
A. OAS
B. MIS
C. TPS
D. DSS
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q231. Batch processing is preferred when
A. Periodic processing required
B. Huge volume of data
C. Processing efficiency important
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q232. OLTP systems require
A. Online files
B. Random query support
C. Real-time processing
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q233. Which is not outside AI domain?
A. Virtual Reality
B. Intelligent Agents
C. Expert Systems
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q234. Which is used for evaluating credit risks?
A. VR
B. Neural Network
C. Fuzzy Logic
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q235. Computer-based model developed after human brain
A. Fuzzy logic
B. Neural network
C. VR
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q236. Knowledge-based systems support
A. Knowledge creation
B. Dissemination
C. Storage
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q237. Multidimensional data analysis is used in
A. DSS
B. MIS
C. TPS
D. ESS
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q238. Cybernetic systems are
A. Self-monitoring
B. Self-controlling
C. Self-regulating
D. All
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q239. Tactical managers develop
A. Long-range plans
B. Medium-range plans
C. Daily transaction records
D. Hardware systems
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q240. Outdated information is useful.
A. True
B. False
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q241. Information dimensions are
A. Time, content, form
B. Cost, form, speed
C. Size, content, value
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q242. Personalized decision support applications are called
A. DSS trends
B. DSS history
C. OLTP
D. MIS tools
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q243. BI expansion became possible because of
A. Web & intranet growth
B. Manual records
C. Hardware failure
D. Tape storage
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q244. DSS uses all except
A. Analytical models
B. Specialized DBs
C. OLTP
D. Interactive modeling
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q245. Original systems supporting managerial decisions were
A. MIS
B. DSS
C. ESS
D. TPS
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q246. Multidimensional database analysis is called
A. OLTP
B. OLAP
C. DSS
D. TPS
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q247. Systems presenting data using charts & graphs are
A. DBMS
B. Data visualization systems
C. TPS
D. MIS
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q248. Goal-seeking analysis asks
A. What if
B. How can
C. Why not
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q249. Changing one variable repeatedly is
A. Goal-seeking
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Optimization
D. Heuristic
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q250. Finding optimum value under constraints is
A. What-if analysis
B. Optimization
C. Goal-seeking
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q251. Market Basket Analysis identifies
A. Frequently purchased items together
B. Employee salaries
C. Payroll structure
D. Inventory backups
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q252. Key factors critical for success are
A. CSFs
B. CAFs
C. DSS
D. TPS
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q253. Hypermedia intranet databases act as
A. Payroll systems
B. Knowledge bases
C. OLTP tools
D. Backup systems
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q254. AI integrates CS, biology, math & psychology.
A. True
B. False
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q255. Multi-sensory simulation is
A. Virtual office
B. Virtual reality
C. Expert system
D. TPS
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q256. Expert systems perform reasoning using
A. Inference engine
B. Hard disk
C. Batch system
D. Payroll
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q257. Core components of information systems are
A. People
B. Process
C. Technology
D. All
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q258. System helping choose products is
A. OAS
B. MIS
C. TPS
D. DSS
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q259. Intranet accessible by outsiders is
A. Firewall
B. Extranet
C. LAN
D. RAID
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q260. Ability to continue after failure is
A. Redundancy
B. Interoperability
C. Fault tolerance
D. Backup
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q261. Striping with parity corresponds to
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 10
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q262. Storage connected directly to network is
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. DAS
D. RAID
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q263. Tape library robotic arm is called
A. RAID
B. Backup device
C. Redundant system
D. Autoloader
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q264. Multiple identical components provide
A. Scalability
B. Redundancy
C. Partitioning
D. OLTP
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q265. Database storing data in 2-D tables is
A. Network DB
B. Hierarchical DB
C. Table DB
D. Relational DB
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q266. SQL command used to remove a table is
A. DELETE
B. DROP
C. REMOVE
D. ERASE
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q267. Which SQL clause filters groups?
A. ORDER BY
B. WHERE
C. HAVING
D. DISTINCT
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q268. Which key uniquely identifies tuples?
A. Foreign key
B. Candidate key
C. Composite key
D. Alternate key
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q269. Which normal form removes transitive dependency?
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. 4NF
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q270. BCNF is stronger version of
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
C. 3NF
D. 5NF
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q271. Which command changes existing table structure?
A. MODIFY
B. ALTER
C. UPDATE
D. CHANGE
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q272. SQL command to remove rows only
A. DROP
B. DELETE
C. REMOVE
D. CLEAR
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q273. Primary key cannot contain
A. Duplicate values
B. NULL values
C. Both
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q274. Which join returns matching rows only?
A. Outer join
B. Full join
C. Inner join
D. Left join
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q275. Which operator checks pattern matching?
A. BETWEEN
B. LIKE
C. IN
D. EXISTS
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q276. Which SQL function counts rows?
A. SUM
B. AVG
C. COUNT
D. MAX
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q277. SQL command to save transaction permanently
A. SAVE
B. COMMIT
C. ROLLBACK
D. END
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q278. SQL command to undo transaction changes
A. COMMIT
B. DELETE
C. ROLLBACK
D. ALTER
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q279. Which isolation level is strongest?
A. Read uncommitted
B. Read committed
C. Repeatable read
D. Serializable
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q280. Lock allowing read only is
A. Exclusive lock
B. Shared lock
C. Binary lock
D. Intent lock
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q281. Deadlock occurs when
A. Transactions wait forever
B. DB crashes
C. Query fails
D. Backup missing
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q282. Wait-for graph is used for
A. Recovery
B. Scheduling
C. Deadlock detection
D. Backup
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q283. Which RAID level mirrors disks?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q284. Which RAID level uses distributed parity?
A. RAID 2
B. RAID 3
C. RAID 4
D. RAID 5
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q285. Full form of OLAP
A. Online Analytical Processing
B. Online Application Program
C. Operational Logical Access Program
D. Online Access Processing
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q286. Full form of OLTP
A. Online Logical Transaction Program
B. Online Transaction Processing
C. Operational Transaction Program
D. Online Table Processing
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q287. SQL stands for
A. Structured Query Language
B. Simple Query Language
C. Standard Query Language
D. Sequential Query Language
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q288. Which key references primary key of another table?
A. Candidate key
B. Alternate key
C. Foreign key
D. Composite key
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q289. Degree of a relation means
A. Number of tuples
B. Number of attributes
C. Number of keys
D. Number of domains
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q290. Cardinality of a relation means
A. Number of rows
B. Number of columns
C. Number of joins
D. Number of keys
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q291. Functional dependency X → Y means
A. X uniquely determines Y
B. Y uniquely determines X
C. X equals Y
D. None
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q292. Which normal form removes multivalued dependency?
A. 2NF
B. 3NF
C. 4NF
D. BCNF
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q293. Which language is procedural?
A. Relational algebra
B. Relational calculus
C. SQL view
D. DDL
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q294. Relational model was proposed by
A. Boyce
B. Codd
C. Shannon
D. Date
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q295. Which join keeps unmatched rows also?
A. Inner join
B. Outer join
C. Theta join
D. Natural join
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q296. Duplicate rows are removed using
A. UNIQUE
B. DISTINCT
C. REMOVE
D. HAVING
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q297. Which SQL clause groups rows?
A. ORDER BY
B. GROUP BY
C. HAVING
D. DISTINCT
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q298. Trigger is activated
A. Manually
B. Automatically
C. Periodically
D. Externally
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q299. Which language controls permissions?
A. DML
B. DDL
C. DCL
D. TCL
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q300. GRANT and REVOKE belong to
A. DDL
B. DCL
C. DML
D. TCL
✔ Correct Answer: B
PART 4 — Advanced DBMS, SQL, Data Mining, Cloud & Security MCQs (301–400)
Q301. Data warehouse is primarily used for
A. Transaction processing
B. Data analysis
C. Data entry
D. Backup only
✔ Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Data warehouses are designed for analysis and decision support.
Q302. Data mining means
A. Collecting data
B. Extracting useful patterns from data
C. Deleting data
D. Encrypting data
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q303. Which technique predicts future trends?
A. Classification
B. Clustering
C. Forecasting
D. Normalization
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q304. OLAP is mainly used for
A. Online transaction processing
B. Analytical processing
C. Network security
D. Data transfer
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q305. A collection of subject-oriented integrated data is called
A. DBMS
B. Data warehouse
C. Data mart
D. Metadata
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q306. Metadata means
A. Raw data
B. Data about data
C. Multimedia data
D. Encrypted data
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q307. Which schema is commonly used in data warehouse?
A. Hierarchical schema
B. Network schema
C. Star schema
D. Ring schema
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q308. Fact tables usually contain
A. Descriptive data
B. Numerical measures
C. User passwords
D. Program code
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q309. Dimension tables contain
A. Descriptive attributes
B. Compiled code
C. Binary data
D. RAID information
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q310. ETL stands for
A. Extract, Transform, Load
B. Enter, Transfer, Load
C. Extract, Transfer, Link
D. Execute, Transform, Load
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q311. Which language is used in Oracle procedures?
A. T-SQL
B. PL/SQL
C. SQLJ
D. NoSQL
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q312. PL/SQL block contains
A. DECLARE
B. BEGIN
C. EXCEPTION
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q313. Cursor in SQL is used for
A. Row-by-row processing
B. Backup
C. Encryption
D. Networking
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q314. Which command creates a view?
A. CREATE VIEW
B. MAKE VIEW
C. VIEW CREATE
D. NEW VIEW
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q315. Which constraint prevents duplicate values?
A. CHECK
B. UNIQUE
C. DEFAULT
D. INDEX
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q316. CHECK constraint is used to
A. Limit values
B. Join tables
C. Create backups
D. Encrypt data
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q317. DEFAULT constraint provides
A. Automatic value
B. Duplicate value
C. Key value
D. Composite key
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q318. Stored procedures improve
A. Performance
B. Reusability
C. Security
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q319. Trigger executes
A. Automatically
B. Manually
C. Randomly
D. Weekly
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q320. Which SQL clause is used with aggregate functions?
A. HAVING
B. ORDER BY
C. INSERT
D. DELETE
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q321. Which SQL function returns average value?
A. COUNT
B. AVG
C. MAX
D. SUM
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q322. Which SQL function returns largest value?
A. MAX
B. MIN
C. AVG
D. SUM
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q323. Which SQL operator checks a range?
A. LIKE
B. BETWEEN
C. IN
D. EXISTS
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q324. LIKE operator uses
A. Wildcards
B. Constraints
C. Keys
D. Triggers
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q325. Which wildcard represents multiple characters?
A. _
B. %
C. *
D. ?
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q326. Which wildcard represents single character?
A. %
B. *
C. _
D. #
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q327. SQL injection is a
A. Backup method
B. Security attack
C. RAID level
D. Data model
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q328. Firewall is used for
A. Query optimization
B. Network security
C. Data redundancy
D. Normalization
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q329. Encryption converts
A. Plaintext into ciphertext
B. Ciphertext into plaintext
C. Table into schema
D. Data into metadata
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q330. Decryption converts
A. Ciphertext into plaintext
B. Plaintext into ciphertext
C. Data into schema
D. Query into plan
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q331. Which protocol provides secure web communication?
A. HTTP
B. FTP
C. HTTPS
D. SMTP
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q332. Full form of VPN
A. Virtual Private Network
B. Visual Private Network
C. Virtual Public Node
D. Verified Private Node
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q333. Biometric authentication uses
A. Passwords
B. Physical characteristics
C. PIN codes
D. IP address
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q334. Which is an example of biometric security?
A. OTP
B. Password
C. Fingerprint
D. Username
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q335. Malware means
A. Security software
B. Malicious software
C. Backup software
D. Database software
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q336. Virus is a type of
A. Hardware
B. Malware
C. DBMS
D. Network
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q337. Phishing attacks attempt to
A. Increase bandwidth
B. Steal sensitive information
C. Normalize database
D. Optimize queries
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q338. Which key is used in symmetric encryption?
A. Same key for encryption and decryption
B. Two different keys
C. Foreign key
D. Candidate key
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q339. Cloud computing provides
A. On-demand resources
B. Printed reports
C. Physical locks
D. Manual storage
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q340. SaaS stands for
A. Software as a Service
B. Storage as a Service
C. Security as a Service
D. Server as a Service
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q341. PaaS stands for
A. Platform as a Service
B. Program as a Service
C. Process as a Service
D. Protocol as a Service
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q342. IaaS stands for
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Internet as a Service
C. Information as a Service
D. Interface as a Service
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q343. Which cloud deployment is open to public?
A. Private cloud
B. Hybrid cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Community cloud
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q344. Hybrid cloud combines
A. Public and private cloud
B. Hardware and software
C. LAN and WAN
D. OLTP and OLAP
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q345. NoSQL databases are mainly used for
A. Structured fixed data only
B. Large-scale unstructured data
C. Payroll only
D. Sequential files
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q346. MongoDB is a
A. Relational DB
B. Document-oriented DB
C. Hierarchical DB
D. Network DB
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q347. Hadoop is mainly used for
A. Big data processing
B. SQL optimization
C. Data redundancy
D. RAID storage
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q348. Big data is characterized by
A. Volume
B. Velocity
C. Variety
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q349. CAPTCHA is used to
A. Identify humans
B. Encrypt files
C. Normalize tables
D. Create indexes
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q350. OTP stands for
A. One Time Password
B. Online Transaction Processing
C. One Table Processing
D. Open Transfer Protocol
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q351. Which network covers large geographical area?
A. LAN
B. PAN
C. WAN
D. MAN
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q352. Which network is limited to a building?
A. WAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. VPN
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q353. Router is used to
A. Store data
B. Connect networks
C. Encrypt files
D. Create tables
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q354. IP address uniquely identifies
A. User password
B. Device on network
C. Database key
D. Table row
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q355. DNS converts
A. IP to password
B. Domain name to IP address
C. Data to metadata
D. Query to plan
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q356. HTML is used for
A. Database programming
B. Web page creation
C. Query optimization
D. Encryption
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q357. URL stands for
A. Uniform Resource Locator
B. Unified Resource Link
C. Universal Record Locator
D. Uniform Record Link
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q358. E-mail protocol for sending mail is
A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. IMAP
D. HTTP
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q359. POP3 protocol is used for
A. Sending email
B. Receiving email
C. Encryption
D. Data mining
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q360. Which topology connects all nodes to a central hub?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Mesh
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q361. Full form of CPU
A. Central Process Unit
B. Central Processing Unit
C. Computer Processing Unit
D. Core Processing Unit
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q362. Primary memory is
A. RAM
B. Hard disk
C. Tape
D. DVD
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q363. ROM is
A. Volatile memory
B. Temporary memory
C. Non-volatile memory
D. Cache memory
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q364. Which memory is fastest?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Cache
D. Hard disk
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q365. ALU performs
A. Arithmetic & logical operations
B. Data backup
C. Networking
D. Compilation
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q366. Operating system acts as
A. Interface between user and hardware
B. Database server
C. Firewall
D. Compiler
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q367. Linux is an example of
A. DBMS
B. Operating system
C. Compiler
D. Browser
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q368. Compiler converts
A. Machine language to source code
B. Source code to machine language
C. Data to information
D. Query to schema
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q369. Which language is machine independent?
A. Assembly language
B. Machine language
C. High-level language
D. Binary language
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q370. Java is a
A. Low-level language
B. High-level language
C. Assembly language
D. Machine language
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q371. Which protocol transfers web pages?
A. FTP
B. SMTP
C. HTTP
D. POP3
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q372. FTP is used for
A. File transfer
B. Query optimization
C. Encryption
D. Backup
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q373. WWW stands for
A. World Wide Web
B. World Web Window
C. Web World Wide
D. Wide World Web
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q374. Browser is used to
A. Create tables
B. Access web pages
C. Encrypt databases
D. Normalize relations
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q375. Search engine example
A. Google
B. Oracle
C. Linux
D. RAID
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q376. E-commerce means
A. Electronic commerce
B. Electrical commerce
C. Enterprise commerce
D. External commerce
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q377. B2B means
A. Business to Business
B. Back to Back
C. Business to Buyer
D. Buyer to Business
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q378. B2C means
A. Buyer to Consumer
B. Business to Consumer
C. Business to Client
D. Base to Client
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q379. Digital signature ensures
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. All of the above
✔ Correct Answer: D
Q380. Which attack floods network with traffic?
A. Phishing
B. DOS attack
C. SQL injection
D. Spoofing
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q381. Backup copy stored at another location is
A. Offsite backup
B. Differential backup
C. Incremental backup
D. RAID
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q382. Incremental backup stores
A. Full data every time
B. Only changed data
C. Metadata only
D. Encrypted data only
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q383. Which backup is fastest to restore?
A. Full backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Differential backup
D. Mirror backup
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q384. A candidate key selected as main key is
A. Foreign key
B. Primary key
C. Composite key
D. Alternate key
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q385. Composite key consists of
A. One attribute
B. Multiple attributes
C. Foreign key only
D. Duplicate values
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q386. Which operation combines tuples from two relations?
A. Selection
B. Projection
C. Join
D. Division
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q387. Projection operation removes
A. Rows
B. Columns
C. Constraints
D. Keys
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q388. Selection operation removes
A. Columns
B. Rows
C. Keys
D. Tables
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q389. Cartesian product combines
A. Matching tuples only
B. Every tuple with every tuple
C. Keys only
D. NULL values only
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q390. Which operator is unary?
A. Join
B. Union
C. Selection
D. Difference
✔ Correct Answer: C
Q391. Which SQL statement retrieves data?
A. SELECT
B. UPDATE
C. DELETE
D. ALTER
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q392. DELETE removes
A. Table structure
B. Rows from table
C. Database schema
D. Constraints only
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q393. DROP removes
A. Rows only
B. Entire object
C. Selected tuples
D. Queries
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q394. UPDATE command modifies
A. Schema
B. Existing data
C. Database users
D. Tablespaces
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q395. COMMIT makes transaction
A. Temporary
B. Permanent
C. Invalid
D. Rolled back
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q396. ROLLBACK restores database to
A. Previous consistent state
B. New schema
C. Empty state
D. Backup server
✔ Correct Answer: A
Q397. Which command removes duplicate rows in output?
A. UNIQUE
B. DISTINCT
C. DELETE
D. ORDER BY
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q398. ORDER BY clause is used for
A. Grouping rows
B. Sorting rows
C. Filtering rows
D. Joining rows
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q399. GROUP BY clause is used for
A. Sorting
B. Grouping rows
C. Deleting duplicates
D. Encryption
✔ Correct Answer: B
Q400. HAVING clause is used to
A. Filter groups
B. Create groups
C. Sort groups
D. Join groups
✔ Correct Answer: A